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ITIL 4 Practitioner: Deployment Management Exam Simulator & ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Pass4sure Vce & ITIL 4 Practitioner: Deployment Management Study Torrent

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ITIL 4 Practitioner: Deployment Management Prep Practice & ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Exam Torrent & ITIL 4 Practitioner: Deployment Management Updated Training

The Peoplecert sector is an ever-evolving and rapidly growing industry that is crucial in shaping our lives today. With the growing demand for skilled Peoplecert professionals, obtaining ITIL 4 Practitioner: Deployment Management (ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management) certification exam has become increasingly important for those who are looking to advance their careers and stay competitive in the job market.

Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic
Details

Topic 1

The ITIL Capability model: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Service Transition Manager and introduces how capability criteria contribute to developing and maturing Deployment Management practices. It focuses on aligning organizational capabilities with ITIL best practices to maintain consistency, quality, and effectiveness in service transitions.

Topic 2

Practice processes: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Service Transition Manager and delves into the key processes that shape Deployment Management. It outlines how these processes and activities can be aligned with the organization’s value stream to ensure that deployments are well-planned, coordinated, and delivered without disrupting existing services.

Topic 3

Practice success: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Change Implementation Lead and explains how to achieve success with Deployment Management through the application of ITIL guiding principles. It focuses on strategies that help establish a robust and value-driven deployment approach that aligns with business objectives and delivers measurable outcomes.

Topic 4

Key concepts: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Service Transition Manager and covers the fundamental purpose of Deployment Management. It highlights why the structured management of service deployment is crucial for delivering new or modified services into the live environment efficiently while minimizing disruption and ensuring continuity in business operations.

Topic 5

Roles and competencies: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Change Implementation Lead and focuses on identifying essential roles within Deployment Management and the competencies needed to perform them effectively. It explores how to position deployment responsibilities within an organization and what skill sets are necessary to ensure deployment tasks are carried out successfully.

Topic 6

Information and technology: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Service Transition Manager and explores how technology and information systems support deployment activities. It covers how tools and digital platforms can enhance the planning, tracking, and execution of deployment efforts, ultimately contributing to more reliable and streamlined service rollouts.

Topic 7

Partners and suppliers: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Change Implementation Lead and examines the influence of partners and suppliers in the deployment process. It highlights the importance of effective collaboration and communication with external stakeholders to ensure that deployments are delivered according to expectations and with minimal risks.

Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Deployment Management Sample Questions (Q18-Q23):

NEW QUESTION # 18
[Understand the Key Concepts of Deployment Management]
Which of the following BEST describes the scope of deployment management practice?

A. The practice includes deploying network hubs to and removing applications from staging environments
B. The practice includes updating service documentation and transferring it to the live environment
C. The practice includes deploying network hubs but not additional software licenses to the live environment
D. The practice includes removing configuration documentation but not physical servers from the live environment

Answer: A

Explanation:
ITIL 4's deployment management practice encompasses moving hardware, software, and associated components into or out of environments (e.g., staging, testing, or production) to support service delivery. Option A, which includes deploying network hubs (hardware) and removing applications from staging environments (software), accurately reflects this broad scope across the service lifecycle.
Option A (The practice includes deploying network hubs to and removing applications from staging environments): Correct, as it covers both hardware and software movements across environments, aligning with ITIL 4's definition of deployment management.
Option B (The practice includes updating service documentation and transferring it to the live environment): Incorrect, as updating and transferring documentation is part of knowledge management, not deployment management.
Option C (The practice includes removing configuration documentation but not physical servers from the live environment): Incorrect, as deployment management includes moving physical servers, and configuration documentation is managed elsewhere.
Option D (The practice includes deploying network hubs but not additional software licenses to the live environment): Incorrect, as software licenses may be part of deployment if required, and the option arbitrarily limits the scope.

NEW QUESTION # 19
[Use Tools and Techniques for Deployment]
An organization is facing errors and delays when deploying software. An investigation has shown that these are often caused by the need for unplanned manual configuration of the target environments. What is the BEST recommendation for the organization to improve the success rate of deployments?

A. Integrate build, test, and deployment activities
B. Automate the CI/CD pipeline
C. Leverage Infrastructure as Code
D. Use incremental deployments

Answer: C

Explanation:
The issue of errors and delays due to unplanned manual configuration of target environments points to inconsistent or poorly managed environments. ITIL 4 recommends leveraging Infrastructure as Code (IaC) (Option A) to address this, as IaC automates and standardizes environment provisioning, ensuring consistency and reducing manual errors.
Option A (Leverage Infrastructure as Code): Correct, as IaC (e.g., using tools like Terraform or Ansible) defines environments in code, enabling repeatable, error-free setups and directly addressing the problem of manual configuration errors.
Option B (Use incremental deployments): Incorrect, as incremental deployments focus on releasing smaller changes but do not address the root cause of environment configuration issues.
Option C (Integrate build, test, and deployment activities): Incorrect, as while integration improves pipeline flow, it does not specifically resolve manual configuration errors in target environments.
Option D (Automate the CI/CD pipeline): Incorrect, as automating the pipeline is a broader solution that may include IaC, but it is not specific enough to address the environment configuration issue directly.

NEW QUESTION # 20
[Engage with Stakeholders and Suppliers]
Which is NOT an example of how an organization should work with suppliers to improve its deployment management practice?

A. Considering dependencies on third parties when analyzing service value streams which include deployment management
B. Carefully selecting suppliers of software tools for CI/CD pipeline
C. Involving third parties in review and planning of the value streams that include deployment management
D. Developing and enforcing detailed and rigorous procedures for every interaction between suppliers and the organization

Answer: D

Explanation:
ITIL 4 encourages collaborative and flexible relationships with suppliers to enhance deployment management, focusing on value co-creation rather than rigid controls. Option D is not aligned with this approach, as overly detailed and rigorous procedures can hinder adaptability and innovation in supplier relationships.
Option A (Considering dependencies on third parties when analyzing service value streams which include deployment management): Correct practice, as understanding supplier dependencies ensures effective integration of deployment activities into value streams.
Option B (Carefully selecting suppliers of software tools for CI/CD pipeline): Correct, as choosing reliable suppliers for CI/CD tools is critical to building a robust deployment management practice.
Option C (Involving third parties in review and planning of the value streams that include deployment management): Correct, as supplier involvement in planning fosters collaboration and ensures alignment with deployment goals.
Option D (Developing and enforcing detailed and rigorous procedures for every interaction between suppliers and the organization): Incorrect, as this approach is overly prescriptive and contradicts ITIL 4's emphasis on flexible, value-focused supplier relationships. It risks stifling collaboration and innovation.

NEW QUESTION # 21
[Understand the Key Concepts of Deployment Management]
Which is a key feature of continuous deployment which is not found in other CI/CD stages?

A. It allows individual decisions about software releases
B. It enables users to benefit immediately from changes
C. It predominantly uses staging environments
D. It automatically tests software code

Answer: B

Explanation:
Continuous deployment (CD) in ITIL 4 is the most advanced stage of the CI/CD pipeline, where every validated change is automatically deployed to production without manual intervention. The key feature unique to continuous deployment, not found in continuous integration or continuous delivery, is that it enables users to benefit immediately from changes (Option B), as changes reach production instantly after passing automated tests.
Option A (It automatically tests software code): Incorrect, as automated testing is a feature of continuous integration and continuous delivery, not unique to continuous deployment.
Option B (It enables users to benefit immediately from changes): Correct, as continuous deployment automatically pushes validated changes to production, delivering value to users without delay, unlike other CI/CD stages.
Option C (It predominantly uses staging environments): Incorrect, as continuous deployment minimizes reliance on staging environments, deploying directly to production.
Option D (It allows individual decisions about software releases): Incorrect, as continuous deployment eliminates manual release decisions, relying on automation for consistency.

NEW QUESTION # 22
[Integrate Deployment Management with Other Practices]
A large multi-national organization uses DevOps principles to enable fast and effective development and implementation of software products. Each product team has a lot of independence, but a centralized IT governance team ensures consistency and adherence to the organization's policies. Different people within the organization have different opinions about whether deployment management should be centralized or distributed among the teams. How should the deployment management practice be implemented and managed in this organization to ensure that the practice meets their needs?

A. Software developers in each team should take full responsibility for deployment of software that they develop
B. A centralized deployment management team should manage and coordinate deployments for all development teams
C. A centralized deployment management team should support the product teams by providing guidance and tooling
D. Each development team should have an independent deployment manager who owns all aspects of deployment within that team

Answer: C

Explanation:
In a DevOps environment with independent product teams and centralized governance, ITIL 4 recommends balancing autonomy with consistency. Option C, where a centralized deployment management team supports product teams by providing guidance and tooling, aligns with this approach. It ensures that teams retain flexibility to deploy efficiently while benefiting from standardized tools, best practices, and governance, maintaining organizational alignment and reducing risks of inconsistency.
Option A (Each development team should have an independent deployment manager who owns all aspects of deployment within that team): Incorrect, as fully independent deployment managers per team could lead to inconsistent practices and tools, undermining centralized governance and creating silos.
Option B (A centralized deployment management team should manage and coordinate deployments for all development teams): Incorrect, as centralizing all deployment activities reduces team autonomy, contradicting DevOps principles of empowering teams and slowing down delivery.
Option C (A centralized deployment management team should support the product teams by providing guidance and tooling): Correct, as it supports DevOps autonomy while ensuring consistency through shared tools (e.g., CI/CD pipelines) and guidance, aligning with ITIL 4's focus on value co-creation and governance.
Option D (Software developers in each team should take full responsibility for deployment of software that they develop): Incorrect, as while developers often handle deployments in DevOps, completely bypassing a structured deployment management practice risks non-compliance with governance and inconsistent outcomes.

NEW QUESTION # 23
......

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